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Quick question about Cpu and Ram. A64

post #1 of 16
Thread Starter 
I heard some vaque comment on some site that stated, its best to have both your cpu and ram running on the same clock, or to be in sync, or something like that. Does that mean that I really should be running my ram at the base clock? I raised the base clock from 200 to 250, and with vcore adjustments, the cpu is running fine. However, I lowered the initial ram speed from 200mhz to 166. With the extra 50 base clock the ram then raises back to its default value of 200 mhz (pc3200).

So, am I missing out because both my cpu and ram running at a differant base clock?, or I am I only missing out on extra ram speed, properotatinate to the 30-50 extra mhz I could be getting?

I really hope this former isnt the case, as I would much rather screw around with ram timings (there already pretty low) and if I raise the initial ram speed from 166 to 200 (I dont have a ram 'divider' on my a8v-e se), the system hangs at startup and needs to have the battery to be cycled, and to default the bios.

hopefully this came off as readable.

PS, would anyone here recommend and be able to provide me with a URL that explains the benefits of an overclocking stragedy based around LOWERING the cpu multipliyer? Would doing that lower the mulitpiers (which I cant modify) for the HTT link and my RAM?

Thanks.


edit: one more quick question.

1. as stated above with the memory clocked substantially over 200 (I have no divider so I have to work with big steps based on the baseclock), my computer hangs. My memory voltage is already .1 or .15 over 2.6v so I dont really wanna try and push it anymore. Rather, I was wondering, if higher voltages are needed for lower ram timings? If so then I probably have the room to mroe slightly tweak the ram timings instead of ram clock speed.
    
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post #2 of 16
A divider on an AMD 939system has little effect unless the divider is huge.
The RAM controler is on the CPU, unlike Intel or earlier AMDs which depended on a MB chip to do the job.
    
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post #3 of 16
Thread Starter 
So, yes?... if I would run the ram at its overclocked speed (instead of 166 -> 200 with baseclock boosts) I wouldnt see any performance other than how much faster the ram would be running?
    
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post #4 of 16
The higher frequency you run your memory will increase performance in conjunction with your cpu frequency. Once you find you cpu maximum it would be a good idea to find you memory maximum. Once you find both your cpu maximum with your memory maximum you can run your cpu at a FSB that works with your memory. For instance I have my FSB set to 306 with a 8.5 multiplier with my memory running at 150MHz (.75 x 306 = 230MHz). Although my memory runs at around 248MHz it works best with my cpu at the speed of 230MHz. A little trial and error and some basic math and you will find the ratio/divider that works best for you.
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post #5 of 16
Thread Starter 
So I WANT to have my memory speed and baseclock as close to each other as possible?
    
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post #6 of 16
Idealy yes.. But if your running pc3200 ddr400 ram your ram will not be able to run 1/1 ratio with your fsb very long.. Thats why they make pc4000 ddr500 184 pin ram.. A good set will run 1/1 all the way up to 280 fsb!
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post #7 of 16
Quote:
Originally Posted by byteframe View Post
So I WANT to have my memory speed and baseclock as close to each other as possible?
Yes Idealy this is what you want for best performance. a 1:1 Ratio between RAM and CPU would be best but can be hard to achieve depending on components used.
post #8 of 16
just remember you can loosen your memory timings just a hare and get those few extra MHz. but ideally on AMD processors you will get better performance by running lower speed with tighter timings and 1t memory commands, rather than higher MHz and looser timings. the best bet is to find a happy medium........
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post #9 of 16
Thread Starter 
Hmm, yeah I really dont have much headroom for bringing up the SPEED of the ram, and I'm really sick of having to open the case to reset the battery because when I go over the ram in terms of speed.

Relaxing the timings sounds like the way to go I quess, my main concern was that I wouldnt be getting much out of my very stable 600 mhz overclock due to ram running at the same speed as it was before, 200, versus the base clock of 250 (of whatever the ram computes to).

So If I were to relax the timings enough (probably cant go that far, as its pretty low already, with 1t) I shouldnt have to worry that I missing out on a SUBSTANTIAL ammount of performance due to ram running out of sync with the baseclock?

ps it seems just kidna like im just askign for...uhh. confirmations over and over again, but the input is much appreticated in a forum that seems to be full to the brim with asimiliar questions.
    
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post #10 of 16
Thread Starter 
Id also rest easy if someone could explain technically why a 1:1 ratio is prefferable. YUY YUY!
    
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