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Overclocked ram & Why 1:1?

post #1 of 88
Thread Starter 
I have Mushkin DDR2 HP2-6400 (2x1GB) in dual channel.
Stock timings: 4-5-4-11
Stock voltage: 2.1v

I was originally running this at 800 MHz, but then did some overclocking:

From 266x10 -> 333x10

I don't understand why people say always use 1:1 fsb:ram ratio/divider? I understand that it will let me overclock my processor higher as the ram won't be the bottleneck...but If I have my CPU at it's max overclock, can't I increase the divider to get more out of the ram? (2:3 or 4:5?)

I don't know how this is possible but after changing to 333x10 and relaxing ram timings to 5-5-5-12, I was able run the ram at 1000 MHz...Am I breaking my ram? should this even be possible?...I barely changed the timings from stock and didn't change the voltage at all.

Can someone shed some light on if what I'm doing is okay or if I am damaging my ram?
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post #2 of 88
Please read my guide:

Intel Memory Guide
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post #3 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by pauldovi View Post
Please read my guide:

Intel Memory Guide
dude.. paul lol i just like figured out a hella lot of info..
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post #4 of 88
Thread Starter 
Okay I read the guide but still am unsure about how I was able to overclock the memory that well. After reading the guide, I can use better terminology:

This is DDR2-800 memory that I am running at DDR2-1000 by relaxing timings from 4-5-4-11 to 5-5-5-12 and leaving the voltage at 2.1v. Also, the divider is obviously not 1:1, everyone says 1:1 is best..but all that would do would be lower my memory bandwith....why would I want to do that...
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post #5 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nerogk View Post
Okay I read the guide but still am unsure about how I was able to overclock the memory that well. After reading the guide, I can use better terminology:

This is DDR2-800 memory that I am running at DDR2-1000 by relaxing timings from 4-5-4-11 to 5-5-5-12 and leaving the voltage at 2.1v. Also, the divider is obviously not 1:1, everyone says 1:1 is best..but all that would do would be lower my memory bandwith....why would I want to do that...
You don't. The faster memory speed is better. You are giving yourself more bandwidth.
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post #6 of 88
I second Pauldovi here.

Speaking of which, paul, do you want any help in creating some real world evidence of greater ram speed rather than 1:1 being better?
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post #7 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nerogk View Post

Can someone shed some light on if what I'm doing is okay or if I am damaging my ram?
I have 2Gb Geil DDR2 800, stock timings at 4-4-4-12 and can easily overclock them to 1000 4-3-3-4 @ 2.1v, rock stable. I think your Mushkin sticks also use Micron D9GMH chips, so you should be able to do the same.
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post #8 of 88
dukes think of this, have any proof that 1:1 would be better?

now think of this when has making something run at a faster speed bad? the higher frequency is going to be able to transmit more information up to the limit of the FSB. even then though it still has the advantage of getting lower latency for having the same settings.

sorry I know not quite an answer to your question but eh...
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post #9 of 88
I believe (someone correct me if I'm wrong) that keeping the RAM and the FSB at a 1:1 ratio allows for smoother computing, as the CPU won't have to wait for the RAM and vice versa. If both are at the same speed, there is no waiting for the other.
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post #10 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ihatethedukes View Post
I second Pauldovi here.

Speaking of which, paul, do you want any help in creating some real world evidence of greater ram speed rather than 1:1 being better?
Bandwidth increases even with increased latencies.

@ 1:1 DDR2-400 Memory bandwidth = 3224MB/s
@ 2:3 DDR2-600 Memory bandwidth = 3774MB/s
@ 1:2 DDR2-800 Memory bandwidth = 4047MB/s





Quote:
Originally Posted by rx7speed View Post
dukes think of this, have any proof that 1:1 would be better?

now think of this when has making something run at a faster speed bad? the higher frequency is going to be able to transmit more information up to the limit of the FSB. even then though it still has the advantage of getting lower latency for having the same settings.

sorry I know not quite an answer to your question but eh...
A little of topic, but your avatar is disturbing! Real men know Honda's are the best cars around. (This is coming from a guy who's family owns 2 Honda Civics, 2 Honda Accords, 1 Honda Odessy, 1 Honda generator, and 2 Honda lawn mowers.



Quote:
Originally Posted by sgtdisturbed47 View Post
I believe (someone correct me if I'm wrong) that keeping the RAM and the FSB at a 1:1 ratio allows for smoother computing, as the CPU won't have to wait for the RAM and vice versa. If both are at the same speed, there is no waiting for the other.
This is just nonsense.
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