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Overclocked ram & Why 1:1? - Page 6

post #51 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Choggs396 View Post
I absolutely GUARANTEE YOU if you were to run two tests, one with a 3.6GHz @ 1:1 RAM/FSB with RAM @ 800MHz ACTUAL SPEED VS. a 3.6GHz @ 2:3 RAM/FSB with RAM @ 800MHz ACTUAL SPEED, the former would perform better.
I agree. But it has nothing to do with the memory ratio. The former has a FSB of 1600Mhz while the latter only has a FSB of 1066Mhz.
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post #52 of 88
First off, it doesn't matter how many people agree with me, that means nothing.

Quote:
and please explain what MB/s / MHz tells us in terms of performance?
I cannot believe how you can still ask this question. You quoted the numbers YOURSELF in that post. It SHOWS, SPEED BEING THE SAME INSTEAD OF DIFFERENT, how the divider decreases the bandwidth.

It's that simple. You're failure to understand this is boggling my mind, like trying to explain to a child if you have 2 apples and I give you 2 more, how many do you have, and they just stare.
    
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post #53 of 88
Quote:
I agree. But it has nothing to do with the memory ratio. The former has a FSB of 1600Mhz while the latter only has a FSB of 1066Mhz.
HA..exactly!

While these->
Quote:
a 3.6ghz/ 1:1 @ 500mhz, or a 3.6ghz @ 500mhz/ 2:3
both have the SAME fsb of 500mhz.

You are talking apples and oranges their bub...get ur fruit straight!
post #54 of 88
Quote:
First off, it doesn't matter how many people agree with me, that means nothing.
<- thats got to be the quote of the week for me! ROFLMAO

He obviously doesnt understand what he is arguing and is very frustrated with his inability to explain his lack of knowledge on this particular subject.
post #55 of 88
Of course the FSB is going to be different, it doesn't matter what the FSB is, as long as the CPU Multiplier is set to make the ACTUAL CPU SPEED THE SAME.
    
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post #56 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Choggs396 View Post
I absolutely GUARANTEE YOU if you were to run two tests, one with a 3.6GHz @ 1:1 RAM/FSB with RAM @ 800MHz ACTUAL SPEED VS. a 3.6GHz @ 2:3 RAM/FSB with RAM @ 800MHz ACTUAL SPEED, the former would perform better.
The ratio of 2:3 is usually represented as FSB/RAM. In order to get 2:3 with your RAM at 800mhz, you would have to drop your FSB to to 266mhz vs 400mhz at 1:1. So of course you will get better performance. But what they are saying is if you run 3.6Ghz, so lets say 400FSB X 9 multi, a 1:1 ration would give you 800mhz memory speed and 2:3 would give you 1000mhz memory speed.
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post #57 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Knitelife View Post
The ratio of 2:3 is usually represented as FSB/RAM. In order to get 2:3 with your RAM at 800mhz, you would have to drop your FSB to to 266mhz vs 400mhz at 1:1. So of course you will get better performance. But what they are saying is if you run 3.6Ghz, so lets say 400FSB X 9 multi, a 1:1 ration would give you 800mhz memory speed and 2:3 would give you 1000mhz memory speed.
Axactly, but that is a DIFFERENT MEMORY SPEED. And that is what I've been saying all along from my original quote.


Quote:
A 1:1 ratio will typically run faster compared to memory running at the same speed that is out of sync
    
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post #58 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by CL3P20 View Post
So a 1mhz FSB + a 3,000x multi on a 1:1 ratio will perform better than a 3,000mhz FSB + a 1x multi on a 1:2 ratio? They have the same CPU speed as you stated...I 'adjusted the multi' for you....now can you explain how the first system would be faster, based on the fact that it has a 1mhz FSB and 1mhz RAM speed and the 2nd system has a 3,000mhz FSB and 6,000mhz RAM speed, but is @ a 1:2....

Now are you seeing how your thinking bassakwards...?
While Pauldovi is wrong, you can't even make your arguments coherent.
    
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post #59 of 88
Quote:
Originally Posted by Choggs396 View Post
Of course the FSB is going to be different, it doesn't matter what the FSB is, as long as the CPU Multiplier is set to make the ACTUAL CPU SPEED THE SAME.
Really? So a computer with a FSB of 200 and a multiplier of 20 (4Ghz) is going to be just as fast as a CPU with a FSB of 500 and a multiplier of 8 (4Ghz)? I think not.

Here is a scenario for you:

I have my E6850 (333Mhz x 9), P35 motherboard, and my very nice DDR3-1600 Ballistixs. I am going to overclock this beast.

I decide to initially set the memory to 1:1 with the FSB. This will allow me to find the limit of my CPU. So I do this, and I find my CPU will not go past 400Mhz. I drop the multiplier and I find that I get to 500Mhz FSB with a 8 multiplier now.

So I have my machine at 500 x 8 (4.0Ghz) and my memory in 1:1 at DDR3-1000. Well I have this very expensive DDR3-1600 Ballistixs that can easily do 2000Mhz

So I crank it up! I still have my CPU at 500 x 8, but now my memory is at 1000Mhz (DDR3-2000) and it is in a 2:1 ratio with my FSB.

Which one will be faster?
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post #60 of 88
If you cant understand that example, I dont know what example you would understand.
Quote:
So a 1mhz FSB + a 3,000x multi on a 1:1 ratio will perform better than a 3,000mhz FSB + a 1x multi on a 1:2 ratio?
At least I am supporting my arguement, with examples. I have a feeling you dont have any to give though..or any proof of the outrageous claims you are making. Furthermore, you are be insulting to other members, that HAVE shown proof of their claims. Paul is one of the leading members when it concerns RAM, as he and DRAX had a 50+ page thread, where they proved the 1:1 is not the fastest solution for a CPU/RAM combo and that real gains could be realized from running the fastest RAM speed possible.

If you had any kind of proof or example to show, the argument might not be so one-sided. But I suggest YOU do your homework before spouting off crap at the mouth. Just because you have a nice computer, doesnt mean we are believing what you say is truth...PROVE IT OR SHUT IT.
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