Originally Posted by MrBungle
Pioneer, can you tell me why he can't set his DDR 400 memory at DDR 400 speeds? i tried to set a friend's AMD to DDR 400 and it was totally unstable. why do you have to underclock the memory in these whacky AMD systems?
Originally Posted by pioneerisloud
That's a VERY good question.
You have to set the RAM down because when you overclock, it overclocks your RAM too. The stock FSB was 200, so was the RAM (DDR400=200MHz). So when you go to 250, your RAM goes to 250 as well, unless you underclock it some. I still haven't figured out the exact way it works...but on my rig (which is exactly like his), I set my RAM at 166 instead of 200, and I get 208MHz from it (which is about the most Corsair Value RAM can handle).
Forgot to add....please people, don't forget to +rep people that help you out. I'd really like to be able to post for sale/wanted things, lol.
When the ratio between the CPU/RAM is 1:1, they overclock equal to each other. If you change the ratio to, let's say 2:1 (2 being cpu, 1 being ram), it will stress the memory 1/2 as much as the CPU. It pretty much eliminates the memory from being a bottleneck, I think.
The thing is at this ratio, from what I have gathered, is that for every 2 MHz the cpu increases, the ram will increase by 1 MHz. Same thing applies to all of the other ratios (5:4, 4:3, etc.); just adjust accordingly.
I'm no expert, so anyone feel free to correct me if I am mistaken.
PS @ pioneerisloud: It seems like you are borderline rep begging, and that isn't wise to do. You will get more rep in time, man. Jesus, look at me!
Just have some patients, you'll get there.