I have Mushkin DDR2 HP2-6400 (2x1GB) in dual channel.
Stock timings: 4-5-4-11
Stock voltage: 2.1v
I was originally running this at 800 MHz, but then did some overclocking:
From 266x10 -> 333x10
I don't understand why people say always use 1:1 fsb:ram ratio/divider? I understand that it will let me overclock my processor higher as the ram won't be the bottleneck...but If I have my CPU at it's max overclock, can't I increase the divider to get more out of the ram? (2:3 or 4:5?)
I don't know how this is possible but after changing to 333x10 and relaxing ram timings to 5-5-5-12, I was able run the ram at 1000 MHz...Am I breaking my ram? should this even be possible?...I barely changed the timings from stock and didn't change the voltage at all.
Can someone shed some light on if what I'm doing is okay or if I am damaging my ram?
Stock timings: 4-5-4-11
Stock voltage: 2.1v
I was originally running this at 800 MHz, but then did some overclocking:
From 266x10 -> 333x10
I don't understand why people say always use 1:1 fsb:ram ratio/divider? I understand that it will let me overclock my processor higher as the ram won't be the bottleneck...but If I have my CPU at it's max overclock, can't I increase the divider to get more out of the ram? (2:3 or 4:5?)
I don't know how this is possible but after changing to 333x10 and relaxing ram timings to 5-5-5-12, I was able run the ram at 1000 MHz...Am I breaking my ram? should this even be possible?...I barely changed the timings from stock and didn't change the voltage at all.
Can someone shed some light on if what I'm doing is okay or if I am damaging my ram?